What was Paul referring to about the baptism for the dead? What are your thoughts and what do you know about it?--Thomas, as well as Ben (Hilo, Hawaii), and John (San Francisco)
Surely 1 Corinthians 15:29 is one of the most problematic passages in the entire Bible! There are four or five main interpretations, and I will not go into them all at this time. I would suggest you consult any commentary on 1 Corinthians, and you will find them. Counting all the alternatives, I have read a couple of articles that listed some forty different interpretations! (Better not be too dogmatic here, brothers!)
The one interpretation that is impossible is the Mormon view, that you can be baptized for one of your ancestors. There is no trace of such a practice in the NT or early Christianity. Colossians 2:12 and other passages teach that it is only your own faith when you are baptized that will enable you to be saved. (The Mormons say that when Jesus preached to the dead who had not heard the word, those in the Spirit World, they had a choice, and would only be saved if they accepted the message. They base this on their interpretation of 1 Peter 3:18-4:6. To be fair, the idea that the dead were preached to is certainly in the Bible, just not the vicarious baptism.)
Keep in mind that 1 Corinthians 15 is a chapter on the resurrection, which some teachers in Corinth were questioning, and that whatever view we come to, it needs to fit within the flow of Paul's thought. If there is no resurrection of the body, the dead will never make it to heaven. Paul insists that we are ultimately in a hopeless condition if our bodies are not going to be raised.
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