I have a question about baptism and receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit. There are certainly numerous accounts in the Bible indicating that baptism is an integral part of salvation. Can you explain a situation like in Acts 10:44,45 where the "Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message," and then they got baptized? -- Andrew Fenton (Atlanta)
Yes, on the surface of things, Acts 10 seems to allow salvation before baptism, while Acts 8 does just the opposite, whereas Acts 2:39 indicates that repentance and baptism are conditions for receiving forgiveness and Spirit unchangingly, for all generations.
The natural conclusion, considering that Peter had only just begun to deliver the saving message (Acts 11:15), is that their knowledge was as of that point insufficient. In other words, they did not receive the indwelling of the Spirit.
On the other hand, whatever exceptional events took place in the first century, there is no biblical reason to expect them to recur in our day. E.g., there are no apostles; no one walks on water; Jesus' resurrection was a one-time event. In light of the Lord's sovereignty, we ought not to be surprised if/when he makes an exception to the usual order of things.
For more on this, please see my book The Spirit, (available in the Book and Audio section of this website), chapter 18, which deals explicitly with your questions.
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