In Q&A 0074 about tongues you said: "In the New Testament tongues (languages) are actual human languages." But 1 Corinthians 14:2 says: For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God. Indeed no one understands him; he utters mysteries with his spirit." If the one who speaks in tongues does not speak to men and no one understands him then it's not a human language. Which is correct? Your book The Spirit doesn't talk about this verse. -- Richard Romero (New York)
I thought I covered the verse in The Spirit, but if not I am happy to answer your question. I believe the point of what Paul is saying is that when someone speaks in an uninterpreted (untranslated) language only God gets what he's saying. What he says is a complete "mystery" to the church. They have no idea what he's saying--until, that is, it's translated. No one understands him, not because it isn't a human language, but because translation is needed. To illustrate, if you walked into the middle of Moscow and starting speaking Spanish, chances are reasonably good no one would understand you. You'd be "speaking in tongues"!
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