Did Jesus get baptized to "become like his brothers in every way" (Hebrews 2:17)? Was that what it meant for him "to fulfill all righteousness" Matthew 3:15? I thought that John's baptism was for repentance, but Jesus didn't need to repent of anything... -- Laura Fouts (Seattle)
Of course Jesus had no sin to be forgiven, so his baptism was not for the same purpose as yours and mine! He took our sins on himself -- so (proleptically, to use the technical term) -- he was baptized in anticipation of the guilt that he would soon bear by taking our sins on himself.
Further, I would suggest that he was baptized for the same reason that he celebrated the Jewish festivals, and for the same reason that his parents offered an animal sacrifice when he was born: to fulfill all righteousness. The Passover lamb was not slain for Jesus' sin, yet he still took part in the celebration. The one who came to fulfill the law (Matthew 5:17) fulfilled all righteousness.
This article is copyrighted and is for private use and study only.