1 Corinthians 15:29 seems to suggest that Paul acknowledged the practice of getting baptized for the purpose of having those who have already died take part in the coming resurrection. It seems that he even condoned this practice as something that was logical. Am I misreading this passage? Paul wrote, "Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them?" Can you comment on this? -- Todd Holland
Whatever it means, Paul is not commending it. I would not even say he condones it. An analogy may help. Recently I was in a traditional church building where worshippers were lighting candles for the dead. If I later met one of these persons on the street, struck up a conversation, and found out he didn't even believe in life after death, what might I say? "If there is no life after death, why do you light candles for the dead?" I am not condoning this practice (which became official church policy in the eighth century, but is wholly absent from and alien to the New Testament). I am simply arguing ad hoc. In the same way, whatever the baptism for the dead means, logically speaking the scriptures do not prove that Paul approved of it.
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