I have a question about 2 Corinthians 2ff. and Ephesians 1. Paul often uses the term "we," "our," etc. In our reading and preaching of these texts, it seems to me our interpretation is that "we" is interpreted as "we Christians," versus "Paul and Timothy" or whoever. For instance, in 2 Corinthians 5, does Paul mean that we as Christians universally have been given the ministry of reconciliation, or specifically Paul and Timothy? If it's Paul and Timothy, what are your thoughts about generalizing it for all Christians? Not that I'm against the concept, but I do want to explain the passage accurately. I have similar questions with Ephesians 1:1-14. -- Rusty Taylor (Phoenix)
You are right; we need to carefully distinguish whom the pronouns refer to. "We" could mean all Christians, or it could include only the writer(s), or maybe just the writer(s) and his immediate audience. Yours is exactly the kind of question that must be asked in order for serious and accurate interpretation to take place.
To be safe, we can agree that the ministry of reconciliation was entrusted first to the apostles and their associates. But notice 2 Corinthians 6:1. Here Paul calls the Corinthians his fellow workers. They shared in the same ministry of reconciliation. And so do we!
This article is copyrighted and is for private use and study only. © 2004. Reprints or public distribution is prohibited without the express consent of Douglas Jacoby.
