It seems strange that Solomon ("peace") was not known by the name the Lord directed Nathan to give him, Jedidiah, ("loved by the Lord"). This latter name doesn't seem to appear anywhere else in scripture, nor does scripture editorialize it. (Of course, that could mean I shouldn’t either!) But if I may ask: if the Lord was directing his naming, did they fail to obey? If so, why is it not addressed? Zechariah's obedience to God in naming his son John seemed like a big deal. – Fred Ichinose
Many persons in scriptures have two names, a covenant name and another name. I doubt very much that the Lord was telling David what to (literally) name his child.
Zechariah's situation was quite different. John is a revolutionary name (Maccabean!)... He was to be publicly identified as a revolutionary (though not a political one). Thus the actual use of the name commanded by the Lord mattered.
Fred again: I hadn't noticed that as a common occurrence, Doug. So I suppose this situation was in a way similar to "Immanuel" from Isaiah and the Lord's given name "Jesus", yes?
Yes, I think you are on the right track.
